Cal_ Posted June 8, 2008 Share Posted June 8, 2008 If you dont mind putting on repeated bets, is there any point betting doubles on the days games? If both evens say, ?10 = ?40 (double) or ?10 = ?20 = ?40 (2x single) Is this correct? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
hughesie27 Posted June 8, 2008 Share Posted June 8, 2008 You are putting on ?20 in the second scenario ie 2 X 2/1 odds rather than 1 X 4/1 where you only put a tenner on for the 2 games in scenario 1. MAke sense? Unless you put the tenner on game 1..if it wins use the 'profit' tenner to place the second bet. The worst you would end up is to break even here. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
The Merse Posted June 8, 2008 Share Posted June 8, 2008 If you dont mind putting on repeated bets, is there any point betting doubles on the days games? If both evens say, ?10 = ?40 (double) or ?10 = ?20 = ?40 (2x single) Is this correct? It's the same bet, but just more hassle puting it on twice. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
belly Posted June 8, 2008 Share Posted June 8, 2008 If you dont mind putting on repeated bets, is there any point betting doubles on the days games? If both evens say, ?10 = ?40 (double) or ?10 = ?20 = ?40 (2x single) Is this correct? No, a ?10 double at evens will give you ?40 back as you have ?10 going on the first match which gives you a return of ?20, this then goes on to the second match which will give you a return of ?40. Where as if you are betting singles you will have to place ?20 (2x?10) to get a reyurn of ?40, ?10 bet will give you a return of ?20 but you are having to do this twice. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Toggie88 Posted June 8, 2008 Share Posted June 8, 2008 No, a ?10 double at evens will give you ?40 back as you have ?10 going on the first match which gives you a return of ?20, this then goes on to the second match which will give you a return of ?40.Where as if you are betting singles you will have to place ?20 (2x?10) to get a reyurn of ?40, ?10 bet will give you a return of ?20 but you are having to do this twice. Yeah. You would need to place two ?10 bets at singles. i.e Singles ?10 bet: Team A to beat Team B = ?20 winnings ?10 bet: Team C to beat Team D = ?20 winnings ?20 total bet: = ?40 winnings Double ?10 bet: Team A to beat Team B & Team C to beat Team D = ?40 winnings So you would have to bet twice the amount to win the same at doubles. But if one team loses at singles, you would still end up equal (?20) Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
hughesie27 Posted June 8, 2008 Share Posted June 8, 2008 So babsically what I said. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Cal_ Posted June 8, 2008 Author Share Posted June 8, 2008 I kinda see. So if you are always correct (win) there is no benefit but if both lose you only lose a tenner. I just always thought doubles had inceased odds Also if the 1st wins you have the chance to back out? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
belly Posted June 8, 2008 Share Posted June 8, 2008 I kinda see. So if you are always correct (win) there is no benefit but if both lose you only lose a tenner.? There is a benefit as you are only placing an initial stake of ?10, as apposed to ?20, but if one team loses on a double you don't get nothing back, where as if one team loses on 2 single you will break even. I just always thought doubles had inceased odds ? They do as explained a double at evens has a multiplier of 4, where as a single at evens is only a multiplier of 2 Also if the 1st wins you have the chance to back out? In a word No! Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Mike Hunt Posted June 8, 2008 Share Posted June 8, 2008 I kinda see. So if you are always correct (win) there is no benefit but if both lose you only lose a tenner. I just always thought doubles had inceased odds Also if the 1st wins you have the chance to back out? all multiples have increased odds tell me the answer to this if you can - Guy in a plane 20,000 feet up with a parachute jumps out and releases his main chute, it fails ! One in every thousand packed parachutes fail ! main and reserve . He has only his reserve left ! What are the odds the man falls to his death after the main chute failing ? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
hughesie27 Posted June 8, 2008 Share Posted June 8, 2008 1000/1? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Mike Hunt Posted June 8, 2008 Share Posted June 8, 2008 1000/1? Ah so you think that now he has a 1000/1 shot on his reserve shoot failing thus falling to his death ! but... When he first jumped what were the odds ? and is 2 chutes failing in a row not included in your logic/odds calculation ? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
stew mc Posted June 8, 2008 Share Posted June 8, 2008 evens Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Cal_ Posted June 8, 2008 Author Share Posted June 8, 2008 Right I put ?10 on france tomorrow, it wins and i put the winnings on italy and they win. I will still end up with the same grand total as ?10 on the double. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
hughesie27 Posted June 8, 2008 Share Posted June 8, 2008 2000/1 Before he jumps. 1000/1 after he only has 1 left. Is it even possibly to calculate the chances of it happening 2 times in a row? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Mike Hunt Posted June 8, 2008 Share Posted June 8, 2008 1000/1? are the odds not the same as they were at the start? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Mike Hunt Posted June 8, 2008 Share Posted June 8, 2008 2000/1 Before he jumps. 1000/1 after he only has 1 left. Is it even possibly to calculate the chances of it happening 2 times in a row? hehe no not 2000/1 ! 1000 x 1000 = 1,000,000 Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
hughesie27 Posted June 8, 2008 Share Posted June 8, 2008 Right I put ?10 on france tomorrow, it wins and i put the winnings on italy and they win. I will still end up with the same grand total as ?10 on the double. Yes but if Italy lose you break even. Alternatively you could put the entire ?20 on and win ?40 Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Mike Hunt Posted June 8, 2008 Share Posted June 8, 2008 Right I put ?10 on france tomorrow, it wins and i put the winnings on italy and they win. I will still end up with the same grand total as ?10 on the double. no Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Mike Hunt Posted June 8, 2008 Share Posted June 8, 2008 Does anyone know the answer to the skydiver question ? [/img] Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
hughesie27 Posted June 8, 2008 Share Posted June 8, 2008 You just said it was 1000000/1 Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Cal_ Posted June 8, 2008 Author Share Posted June 8, 2008 no By winning i mean plus the original ?10 Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Mike Hunt Posted June 8, 2008 Share Posted June 8, 2008 You just said it was 1000000/1 no i didnt If i guy has just jumped from a plane and is flying through the air just after his main parachute has failed and he has one reserve chute left and the odds of that being packed wrongly is 1000/1 then surley he has 1000/1 chance of it not working and thus thudding to the deck , squeltch Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
belly Posted June 8, 2008 Share Posted June 8, 2008 Right I put ?10 on france tomorrow, it wins and i put the winnings on italy and they win. I will still end up with the same grand total as ?10 on the double. Yes in effect it is the same bet as a double! Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
belly Posted June 8, 2008 Share Posted June 8, 2008 Yes but if Italy lose you break even.Alternatively you could put the entire ?20 on and win ?40 No he won't he will lose, as he is putting the winnings from one game on to the next. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Cal_ Posted June 8, 2008 Author Share Posted June 8, 2008 Yes in effect it is the same bet as a double! Ahhhh Thank you Never really got that. Now, i do. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Mike Hunt Posted June 8, 2008 Share Posted June 8, 2008 Ahhhh Thank you Never really got that. Now, i do. lol no you aint got anything multiples odds are calculated with the logic that you have to win em all Single bet odds :- France to beat Holland 3/1 Italy to win 2/1 Multiple choice France to win and italy to win France to beat Holland 3.5/1 Italy t win 2.5/1 Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
hughesie27 Posted June 9, 2008 Share Posted June 9, 2008 No he won't he will lose, as he is putting the winnings from one game on to the next. He places ?10 on game 1 Gets ?20 back. He has WON ?10. Places ?10 on game 2....loses Back to square 1. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
hughesie27 Posted June 9, 2008 Share Posted June 9, 2008 lol no you aint got anything multiples odds are calculated with the logic that you have to win em all Single bet odds :- France to beat Holland 3/1 Italy to win 2/1 Multiple choice France to win and italy to win France to beat Holland 3.5/1 Italy t win 2.5/1 He is talking about if the odds are evens Oh aye, 1002000/1 Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
AndyMcI Posted June 9, 2008 Share Posted June 9, 2008 He places ?10 on game 1Gets ?20 back. He has WON ?10. Places ?10 on game 2....loses Back to square 1. But doing it the way above would only give back ?30 overall. (?10 you've kept plus a ?20 win on the 2nd game) In order to get to the ?40 back you need to put all ?20 from the first win onto the second game at evens. If Italy lose you have still lost all your money. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Recommended Posts
Archived
This topic is now archived and is closed to further replies.